I have come across a theological assertion (in conversation with a Biblical Unitarian) that John 10:33 should be understood thus:
The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself a god"
What is the hermeneutical justification for adding or not adding the ‘a’ or for understanding an ‘a’ even if it is left out of the translation?
This link below is provided one of the reason why it should be translated as "a god".
https://www.biblebookprofiler.com/the-forgery-of-john-10-33.html
Below are some references for the postulated translation.
The context of John 10:33-36 (and of Psalm 82:6 which is quoted there) and NT Greek grammar show "a god" to be the correct rendering. Young’s Concise Critical Bible Commentary, p. 62, by the respected trinitarian, Dr. Robert Young, confirms this:
It is also admitted that this is the meaning of Jn 10:33 by noted trinitarian NT scholar C. H. Dodd:
"making himself a god." – The Interpretation of the Fourth Gospel, p. 205, Cambridge University Press, 1995 reprint
A Translator’s Handbook on the Gospel of John by trinitarians Newman and Nida insists that "a god" would not be "in keeping with the theology of John" and the charge of blasphemy by the Jews, but, nevertheless, also admits:
Purely on the basis of the Greek text, therefore, it is possible to translate (John 10:33) "a god", as NEB does, rather than to translate God, as TEV and several translations do. One might argue on the basis of both the Greek and the context, that the Jews were accusing Jesus of claiming to be "a god" rather than "God". -p.344 United Bible Societies, 1980.
The highly respected (and highly trinitarian) W. E. Vine indicates the proper rendering here:
"The word [theos] is used of Divinely appointed judges in Israel, as representing God in His authority, John 10:34" – p. 491, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words.
So, in the NEB it reads:
" ‘We are not going to stone you for any good deed, but for your blasphemy. You, a mere man, claim to be a god.’ Jesus answered, ‘Is it not written in your own Law, "I said: You are gods"? Those are called gods to whom the word of God was delivered – and Scripture cannot be set aside. Then why do you charge me with blasphemy because I, consecrated and sent into the world by the Father, said, "I am God’s SON"?’ "
The purported associated questions did not provide any studies or research as the basis for the assertion whereas this question provides sources as to why such a translation is considered.
![Should John 10:33 say “because that thou, being a man, makest thyself a god”? or make thyself God? [duplicate]](https://pentecostaleschatology.com/wp-content/uploads/2025/11/Should-John-1033-say-because-that-thou-being-a-man-makest-thyself-a-god-or-make-thyself-God-duplicate.png)
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